PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate - 8011 certification

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PRMIA 8011 Exam Syllabus Topics:

PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:

1. The principle underlying the contingent claims approach to measuring credit risk equates the cost of eliminating credit risk for a firm to be equal to:

A) the probability of the firm's assets falling below the critical value for default
B) the market valuation of the firm's equity less the value of its liabilities
C) the value of a put on the firm's assets with a strike equal to the value of the debt
D) the cost of a call on the firm's assets with a strike equal to the value of the debt

2. Which of the following steps are required for computing the total loss distribution for a bank for operational risk once individual UoM level loss distributions have been computed from the underlhying frequency and severity curves:
I. Simulate number of losses based on the frequency distribution
II. Simulate the dollar value of the losses from the severity distribution III. Simulate random number from the copula used to model dependence between the UoMs IV. Compute dependent losses from aggregate distribution curves

A) I and II
B) III and IV
C) All of the above
D) None of the above

3. An asset has a volatility of 10% per year. An investment manager chooses to hedge it with another asset that has a volatility of 9% per year and a correlation of 0.9. Calculate the hedge ratio.

A) 1.2345
B) 1
C) 0.9
D) 0.81

4. The key difference between 'top down models' and 'bottom up models' for operational risk assessment is:

A) Top down approaches to operational risk calculate the implied operational risk using available data such as income volatility, capital etc; while bottom up approaches use causal factors, risk drivers and other factors to get an aggregated estimate of risk.
B) Top down approaches to operational risk are based upon an analysis of key risk drivers, while bottom up approaches consider causality in risk scenarios.
C) Bottom up approaches to operational risk are based upon an analysis of key risk drivers, while top down approaches consider causality in risk scenarios.
D) Bottom up approaches to operational risk calculate the implied operational risk using available data such as income volatility, capital etc; while top down approaches use causal factors, risk drivers and other factors to get an aggregated estimate of risk.

5. Which of the following will be a loss not covered by operational risk as defined under Basel II?

A) Systems failure
B) Earthquakes
C) Fat finger losses
D) Strategic planning

Solutions: