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The CRISC certification exam is a challenging test that covers a wide range of topics related to risk management and information systems control. CRISC exam is designed to assess the knowledge, skills, and abilities of IT professionals who are responsible for managing risks related to information systems. CRISC exam consists of four domains: Risk Identification, Assessment, and Evaluation; Risk Response; Risk Monitoring; and Information Systems Control Design and Implementation.
NEW QUESTION # 519
Which among the following is the BEST reason for defining a risk response?
- A. To eliminate risk from the enterprise
- B. To ensure that the residual risk is within the limits of the risk appetite and tolerance
- C. To overview current status of risk
- D. To mitigate risk
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The purpose of defining a risk response is to ensure that the residual risk is within the limits of the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. Risk response is based on selecting the correct, prioritized response to risk, based on the level of risk, the enterprise's risk tolerance and the cost or benefit of the particular risk response option.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk cannot be completely eliminated from the enterprise.
C: This is not a valid answer.
D: Mitigation of risk is itself the risk response process, not the reason behind this.
NEW QUESTION # 520
What are the key control activities to be done to ensure business alignment?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
- A. Define the business requirements for the management of data by IT
- B. Establish an independent test task force that keeps track of all events
- C. Periodically identify critical data that affect business operations
- D. Conduct IT continuity tests on a regular basis or when there are major changes in the IT infrastructure
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
Business alignment require following control activities:
* Defining the business requirements for the management of data by IT.
* Periodically identifying critical data that affect business operations, in alignment with the risk management model and IT service as well as the business continuity plan.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Conducting IT continuity tests on a regular basis or when there are major changes in the IT infrastructure is done for testing IT continuity plan. It does not ensure alignment with business.
D: This is not a valid answer.
NEW QUESTION # 521
An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?
- A. Confidentiality breach
- B. Intellectual property loss
- C. Institutional knowledge loss
- D. Unauthorized access
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 522
To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is MOST important to review the:
- A. risk mitigation approach
- B. vulnerability assessment results
- C. risk assessment results
- D. cost-benefit analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 523
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?
- A. Increase the frequency of incident reporting.
- B. Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.
- C. Conduct a control assessment.
- D. Enhance the security awareness program.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 524
Which of the following components ensures that risks are examined for all new proposed change requests in the change control system?
- A. Scope change control
- B. Risk monitoring and control
- C. Integrated change control
- D. Configuration management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Integrated change control is the component that is responsible for reviewing all aspects of a change's impact on a project - including risks that may be introduced by the new change.
Integrated change control is a way to manage the changes incurred during a project. It is a method that manages reviewing the suggestions for changes and utilizing the tools and techniques to evaluate whether the change should be approved or rejected. Integrated change control is a primary component of the project's change control system that examines the affect of a proposed change on the entire project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Configuration management controls and documents changes to the features and functions of the product scope.
B: Scope change control focuses on the processes to allow changes to enter the project scope.
C: Risk monitoring and control is not part of the change control system, so this choice is not valid.
NEW QUESTION # 525
Mike is the project manager of the NNP Project for his organization. He is working with his project team to plan the risk responses for the NNP Project. Mike would like the project team to work together on establishing risk thresholds in the project. What is the purpose of establishing risk threshold?
- A. It is a warning sign that a risk event is going to happen.
- B. It is a limit of the funds that can be assigned to risk events.
- C. It helps to identify those risks for which specific responses are needed.
- D. It is a study of the organization's risk tolerance.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Risk threshold helps to identify those risks for which specific responses are needed.
NEW QUESTION # 526
The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:
- A. reduce risk factors.
- B. reduce risk to an acceptable level.
- C. minimize residual risk.
- D. identify compensating controls.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 527
An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:
- A. minimize senior management's risk tolerance.
- B. manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.
- C. are cost-effective to implement
- D. reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 528
The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:
- A. facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.
- B. assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.
- C. benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.
- D. ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 529
Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?
- A. Risk tolerance
- B. Risk appetite
- C. Risk response
- D. Risk magnitude
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 530
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the risk management plan?
- A. The risk management plan is an input to all the remaining risk-planning processes.
- B. The risk management plan includes thresholds, scoring and interpretation methods, responsible parties, and budgets.
- C. The risk management plan is an output of the Plan Risk Management process.
- D. The risk management plan includes a description of the risk responses and triggers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The risk management plan details how risk management processes will be implemented, monitored, and controlled throughout the life of the project. The risk management plan does not include responses to risks or triggers. Responses to risks are documented in the risk register as part of the Plan Risk Responses process.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: These all statements are true for risk management plan. The risk management plan details how risk management processes will be implemented, monitored, and controlled throughout the life of the project. It includes thresholds, scoring and interpretation methods, responsible parties, and budgets. It also act as input to all the remaining risk-planning processes.
NEW QUESTION # 531
Which of the following techniques examines the degree to which organizational strengths offset threats and opportunities that may serve to overcome weaknesses?
- A. Brainstorming
- B. Delphi
- C. SWOT Analysis
- D. Expert Judgment
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SWOT analysis is a strategic planning method used to evaluate the Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats involved in a project or in a business venture. It involves specifying the objective of the business venture or project and identifying the internal and external factors that are favorable and unfavorable to achieving that objective.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C: Brainstorming and Delphi techniques are used to identify risks in a project through consensus. Delphi differs in that as the members of the team do not know each other.
D: In this technique, risks can be identified directly by experts with relevant experience of similar projects or business areas.
NEW QUESTION # 532
You are preparing to complete the quantitative risk analysis process with your project team and several subject matter experts. You gather the necessary inputs including the project's cost management plan. Why is it necessary to include the project's cost management plan in the preparation for the quantitative risk analysis process?
- A. Explanation:
The cost management plan is an input to the quantitative risk analysis process because of the cost management control it provides. The cost management plan sets how the costs on a project are managed during the project's lifecycle. It defines the format and principles by which the project costs are measured, reported, and controlled. The cost management plan identifies the person responsible for managing costs, those who have the authority to approve changes to the project or its budget, and how cost performance is quantitatively calculated and reported upon. - B. The project's cost management plan provides direction on how costs may be changed due to identified risks.
- C. The project's cost management plan can help you to determine what the total cost of the project is allowed to be.
- D. The project's cost management plan provides control that may help determine the structure for quantitative analysis of the budget.
- E. The project's cost management plan is not an input to the quantitative risk analysis process.
Answer: D
Explanation:
is incorrect. This is not a valid statement. The cost management plan is an input to the quantitative risk analysis process. Answer:B is incorrect. The cost management plan defines the estimating, budgeting, and control of the project's cost. Answer:C is incorrect. While the cost management plan does define the cost change control system, this is not the best answer for this
NEW QUESTION # 533
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?
- A. To identify dependencies for reporting risk
- B. To provide consistent and clear terminology
- C. To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained
- D. To allow for proper review of risk tolerance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 534
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?
- A. The applications are not captured in the risk profile.
- B. Controls are not applied to the applications.
- C. An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.
- D. There is a lack of technology recovery options.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 535
Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?
- A. Risk disclosures in financial statements
- B. Business objectives and strategies
- C. Risk assessment and risk register
- D. Internal and external audit reports
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 536
You are working in an enterprise. Your enterprise owned various risks. Which among the following is MOST likely to own the risk to an information system that supports a critical business process?
- A. Senior management
- B. IT director
- C. System users
- D. Risk management department
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Senior management is responsible for the acceptance and mitigation of all risk. Hence they will also own the risk to an information system that supports a critical business process.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The system users are responsible for utilizing the system properly and following procedures, but they do not own the risk.
C: The IT director manages the IT systems on behalf of the business owners.
D: The risk management department determines and reports on level of risk, but does not own the risk.
Risk is owned by senior management.
NEW QUESTION # 537
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?
- A. The number of resolved security incidents
- B. The number of newly identified security incidents
- C. The number of recurring security incidents
- D. The number of security incidents escalated to senior management
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 538
Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?
- A. Enforce an internal data access policy.
- B. Implement segregation of duties.
- C. Enforce the use of digital signatures.
- D. Apply single sign-on for access control.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 539
The only output of qualitative risk analysis is risk register updates. When the project manager updates the risk register he will need to include several pieces of information including all of the following except for which one?
- A. Watchlist of low-priority risks
- B. Risks grouped by categories
- C. Trends in qualitative risk analysis
- D. Risk probability-impact matrix
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation:
The risk matrix is not included as part of the risk register updates. There are seven things that can be updated in the risk register as a result of qualitative risk analysis: relating ranking of project risks, risks grouped by categories, causes of risks, list of near-term risks, risks requiring additional analysis, watchlist of low-priority risks, trends in qualitative risk analysis.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Trends in qualitative risk analysis are part of the risk register updates.
C: Risks grouped by categories are part of the risk register updates.
D: Watchlist of low-priority risks is part of the risk register updates.
NEW QUESTION # 540
Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?
- A. Network time protocol synchronization
- B. Identification of attack sources
- C. Early detection of breaches
- D. A documented communications plan
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 541
A global organization is planning to collect customer behavior data through social media advertising. Which of the following is the MOST important business risk to be considered?
- A. Business advertising will need to be tailored by country.
- B. The data analysis may be ineffective in achieving objectives.
- C. Regulatory requirements may differ in each country.
- D. Data sampling may be impacted by various industry restrictions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 542
Which of the following would be MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization's current risk profile?
- A. Perform a risk assessment
- B. Hire consultants specializing in the new technology
- C. Review existing risk mitigation controls
- D. Conduct a gap analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 543
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The CRISC certification exam is designed to test a candidate’s knowledge and skills in four key domains: risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring. CRISC exam covers topics such as risk management frameworks, risk assessment methodologies, and risk response strategies. It also covers topics related to the design, implementation, monitoring, and maintenance of information systems controls.
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