Pass Salesforce Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Actual Free Exam Q&As Updated Dump Dec 21, 2024 [Q101-Q123] | DumpsMaterials

Pass Salesforce Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Actual Free Exam Q&As Updated Dump Dec 21, 2024 [Q101-Q123]

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Pass Salesforce Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Actual Free Exam Q&As Updated Dump Dec 21, 2024

Latest Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Actual Free Exam Updated 229 Questions


Salesforce Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect certification exam is a challenging exam that requires extensive knowledge and experience in Salesforce development. It consists of multiple-choice questions and performance-based scenarios that test the candidate's ability to design and implement complex Salesforce applications. To prepare for the exam, candidates must have hands-on experience in developing and deploying Salesforce applications, as well as a deep understanding of Salesforce development best practices and methodologies.


To become a Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect, candidates must have extensive knowledge and experience in Salesforce development. They must also possess excellent understanding of software development methodologies, such as Agile and Scrum, and be able to apply them in the context of Salesforce applications. Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect exam covers a wide range of topics, including source control management, continuous integration and delivery, testing, and deployment automation.

 

NEW QUESTION # 101
What is the process used to initiate a connection for change sets?

  • A. Modify the target org to accept an inbound connection from the source org
  • B. Modify the target org to accept an outbound connection from the source org
  • C. Modify the source org to allow an outbound connection to the target org
  • D. Modify the source org to allow an inbound connection to the target org

Answer: C

Explanation:
A is the correct answer, as the process to initiate a connection for change sets is to modify the source org to allow an outbound connection to the target org. B and C are incorrect, as the target org does not need to accept any connection from the source org, but only to deploy the inbound change sets that are sent from the source org. D is incorrect, as the source org does not need to allow any inbound connection to the target org, but only to create and upload the outbound change sets to the target org. You can learn more about this process in the Change Sets Basics module on Trailhead.


NEW QUESTION # 102
Universal Containers (UC) has a large backlog of work. They have noticed that despite their best efforts, valuable enhancements and updates are not being completed because they do not have the bandwidth to get them done. Many of these items are low effort and would not require experienced resources.
What should the architect recommend, that will minimize additional costs and allow UC to accomplish more from the

  • A. UC should start a citizen development program.
  • B. UC should hire a partner to complete the needed backlog items.
  • C. UC should eliminate low-value items from the backlog.
  • D. UC should hire additional resources to reduce the backlog.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The architect should recommend that UC start a citizen development program to minimize additional costs and allow UC to accomplish more from the backlog. A citizen development program is a way of empowering non-technical users to create and deploy simple applications using low-code or no-code tools, such as Salesforce Platform. This can help UC leverage the skills and knowledge of their existing workforce, reduce the workload of the development team, and deliver value faster to the business.


NEW QUESTION # 103
Universal Containers CUC) has developed extensions of Salesforce Service Cloud for the use of its customer service teams using the change set development model.
Recently, UC acquired a company that develops extensions of an AppExchange app. The development team of the acquired company uses the org development model. The Universal Containers CTO wants both teams to work on a single org and follow the same set of processes.
Which development model should the architect recommend to be used by the consolidated development team?

  • A. Package development model, because it allows packages to be created and deployed using declarative (point-and-click) development tools, without writing code.
  • B. Package development model, so teams can build release artifacts that can be tested and released independently from artifacts for other projects.
  • C. Org development model, because the acquired company's team is already using it, and it is better than the change set development model.
  • D. Change set development model, because UC is already using it, so it will face less resistance.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The development model that the architect should recommend to be used by the consolidated development team is the package development model. This model allows teams to build release artifacts that can be tested and released independently from artifacts for other projects, using unlocked packages or second-generation managed packages. This model can help improve the modularity, reusability, and maintainability of the code and configuration, as well as enable source-driven development and continuous integration and delivery. The org development model is not a good choice for the consolidated development team, as it is based on working directly in an org and using change sets or metadata API tools to deploy changes. This model can lead to conflicts, dependencies, and governance issues, especially when working on multiple projects or with multiple teams. The change set development model is also not a good choice for the consolidated development team, as it is based on using change sets to deploy changes between connected orgs. This model can be slow, error-prone, and limited, as it does not support all metadata types, dependencies, or automation. The package development model does not allow packages to be created and deployed using declarative (point-and-click) development tools, without writing code. This is a wrong statement, as the package development model supports both declarative and programmatic development tools, and requires writing code to create and install packages using the Salesforce CLI or APIs. See Package Development Model for more details.


NEW QUESTION # 104
Universal Containers CUC) has multiple teams working on different projects. Multiple projects will be deployed to many production orgs. During code reviews, the architect finds inconsistently named variables and lack of best practices.
What should an architect recommend to improve consistency?

  • A. Use static code analysis to enforce coding standards.
  • B. Create a Center of Excellence for release management.
  • C. Execute regression testing before code can be committed.
  • D. Require pull requests to be reviewed by two developers before merging.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 105
The release will be deployed over a weekend, one week after Salesforce updates the production environment (e.g., from Winter to Spring). UC has found that a full sandbox refresh can take several days. What should the architect suggest as an optimal deployment plan?

  • A. One week before go -live, initiate the Staging sandbox refresh and then immediately deploy to Staging. Deploy from Staging to Production at go-live
  • B. One month before go -live, deploy to Staging and to Production Support. Deploy from Production Support to Production at go-live
  • C. Two weeks before go -live, deploy to Staging and then refresh the Staging and Production support sandboxes. Deploy from Staging to Production at go-live
  • D. Approximately six weeks before go -live, ensure the sandbox will be on the release preview. One week before go live, deploy to Staging. Deploy from Staging to Production at go-live

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 106
Universal Containers has a full sandbox that will be used to analyze and fix bugs found in production.
Which two items should the architect recommend to ensure that bugs found in production are more easily analyzed in this full sandbox?
Choose 2 answers

  • A. Before any deployment in production, the same process must be performed in this sandbox.
  • B. Create a daily process of copying new and changed data in production to the full sandbox.
  • C. Refresh the full sandbox after every deployment in production.
  • D. Perform a Refresh Data in the full sandbox.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Explanation
To ensure that bugs found in production are more easily analyzed in the full sandbox, the architect should recommend to refresh the full sandbox after every deployment in production, and to perform the same process in the sandbox before any deployment in production. This way, the full sandbox will be in sync with the production org and will have the same metadata and code. Creating a daily process of copying new and changed data in production to the full sandbox is not necessary, as the full sandbox already has a copy of the production data. Performing a Refresh Data in the full sandbox is not possible, as this option is only available for partial copy and developer pro sandboxes.


NEW QUESTION # 107
Universal Containers (UC) is implementing Salesforce and wants the custom code to be unit-tested for all adverse conditions. Which two best practices should an Architect recommend while implementing Test Classes? Choose 2 answers

  • A. Test classes must use existing data in the environment.
  • B. Execute test classes under various profiles
  • C. Test classes should not create custom setting data.
  • D. Test data must have positive as well as negative data.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Explanation
Test classes should execute under various profiles to ensure that the code works for different user permissions and sharing settings. Test data must have positive as well as negative data to cover all possible scenarios and edge cases.


NEW QUESTION # 108
Universal containers is looking to install a new application to enable advanced quoting in its current Professional Edition org. The org is near capacity with object and tab limits. Which two solutions should the Architect recommend? Choose 2 answers

  • A. Buy more user licenses to increase org limits
  • B. Create and install an unmanaged package
  • C. Install an Aloha certified App
  • D. Upgrade to an Enterprise Edition org

Answer: A,D


NEW QUESTION # 109
What are three advantages of using the SFDX?
Choose 3 answers

  • A. Can store code on a local machine, or a version control system.
  • B. Can use native Deployment Rollback Tool to quickly revert to prior state.
  • C. Can create scratch orgs.
  • D. Can Install application metadata from a central repository.
  • E. Can quickly deploy metadata using Execute Anonymous.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
Explanation
Three advantages of using the SFDX are: can store code on a local machine, or a version control system; can create scratch orgs; and can install application metadata from a central repository. These advantages can help improve the development experience, as they allow developers to work with source-driven development, use ephemeral and configurable environments, and access metadata components from a shared location. Can quickly deploy metadata using Execute Anonymous is not an advantage of using the SFDX, as Execute Anonymous is a feature of the Developer Console that allows running Apex code, not deploying metadata.
Can use native Deployment Rollback Tool to quickly revert to prior state is also not an advantage of using the SFDX, as there is no such tool in the SFDX. See [Salesforce DX] for more details.


NEW QUESTION # 110
Universal Containers CUC) has been on the org development model with scratch orgs are already enabled, but they haven't been taking advantage of the scratch orgs.
Now UC is ready to move to the package development model.
What step must be done by an administrator?

  • A. In setup, switch the Enable Dev Hub to Enabled, then switch the Enable Source Tracking for Scratch Orgs to Enabled.
  • B. In setup, switch the Enable Unlocked Packages and Second-Generation Managed Packages to Enabled.
  • C. In setup, switch the Enable Unlocked Packages to Enabled, keep the Enable Second-Generation Managed Packages as disabled.
  • D. In setup, switch both the Enable Dev Hub and Enable 2nd-Generation Managed Packages to Enabled.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
To move to the package development model, the administrator must enable both the Dev Hub and the Second-Generation Managed Packages in setup. The Dev Hub is the main org where the administrator can create and manage scratch orgs and packages. The Second-Generation Managed Packages are the new format of packages that support modular development and versioning. The Unlocked Packages are a type of second-generation packages that are not tied to a namespace and can be installed and customized in any org.
The Source Tracking for Scratch Orgs is a feature that allows the administrator to track the changes made in a scratch org and push or pull them to or from a source repository.


NEW QUESTION # 111
Universal Containers has multiple project teams integrating Salesforce to various systems Integration Architects are complaining about the various integration patterns used by the teams and lack a common understanding of the integration landscape. What should architect recommended to address the challenges?

  • A. Create design standards focused on integration and provide training to all teams
  • B. Recommend a fire-and-forget design pattern to be used for all teams.
  • C. Recommend an outbound message design pattern to be used for all teams.
  • D. Implement a data governance policy and publish the documentation to all teams.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 112
Universal Containers (UC) development team is using an Agile tool to track the status of build items, but only in terms of stages. UC is not able to track any effort estimates, log any hours worked, or keep track of remaining effort. For what reasons should UC consider using the agile tool for effort tracking?

  • A. Allows the management team to make critical timeline commitments based solely on developer estimates.
  • B. Allows the management team to manage the performance of bad developers who are slacking off.
  • C. Allows the organization to track the Developers work hours for salary compensation purposes.
  • D. Allows the Developer to compare their effort, estimates and actuals to better adjust their future estimates.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 113
Which are two key benefits of fully integrating an agile issue tracker with software testing and continuous integration tools? Choose 2 answers?

  • A. Developers can use the committed code's build status directly on the user story record.
  • B. Developers can see automated test statuses post code commit on a specific user story.
  • C. Developers can collaborate and communicate effectively on specific user stories.
  • D. Developers can observe their team velocity on the burn chart report in the agile tool.

Answer: A,B


NEW QUESTION # 114
What is the responsibility of the Technical Architect within a Change Control Board meeting?

  • A. Conduct code reviews for projects in the development phase
  • B. Troubleshoot deployment errors that occurred during the last release
  • C. Approve the upcoming release for deployment into production
  • D. Prioritize the Salesforce product roadmap with business stakeholders

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The responsibility of the Technical Architect within a Change Control Board meeting is to approve the upcoming release for deployment into production, as they are the ones who have the authority and expertise to evaluate the quality and readiness of the release2. Option A is not correct, as prioritizing the Salesforce product roadmap with business stakeholders is not a task that is done in a Change Control Board meeting, but rather in a strategic planning session. Option B is not correct, as conducting code reviews for projects in the development phase is not a task that is done in a Change Control Board meeting, but rather in a code review session. Option C is not correct, as troubleshooting deployment errors that occurred during the last release is not a task that is done in a Change Control Board meeting, but rather in a post-deployment review session.


NEW QUESTION # 115
Universal Containers (UC) is developing a custom Force.com application. The following tools are used for development, the Force.com IDE for developing apps. Git as a source control system and a Git repository, and the Force.com Migration Tool for updating sandboxes from source control. UC's current branching strategy calls for two main branches: 1) Master 2) Develop Three supporting branches: 1) Feature 2) Release 3) Hotflix Consider that the branching strategy is in parallel as follows Feature |Develop |Release |Hotfix |Master What is the recommended practice strategy that Developers should adopt for Development?

  • A. Developers work off of the Feature branch, which is pulled from the Develop branch, and the Feature branch is then merged with the Develop branch.
  • B. Developers work off of the Feature branch, which is pulled from the Release branch, and the Feature branch is then merged with the Develop branch.
  • C. Developers work off of the Feature branch, which is pulled from the Develop branch, and the Feature branch is then merged with the Hotfix branch.
  • D. Developers work off of the Feature branch, which is pulled from the Master branch and the Feature branch is then merged with the Develop branch.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 116
Universal Containers has a highly integrated environment with significant process orchestration between systems. When refreshing UAT, Objects that have external Ids from Production no longer point to valid External Ids in the UAT environment.
What should an Architect do to resolve this?

  • A. In the post refresh plan, modify external ids to a known valid set of values for UAT.
  • B. Mask the External Id so nobody can see the production value.
  • C. Let UAT point to production integrations and rollback each transaction after it finishes.
  • D. Delete all the data and use an Automated testing tool to create new data across all the systems in UAT.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
In the post refresh plan, modifying external ids to a known valid set of values for UAT is the best way to resolve the issue of objects that have external ids from production no longer pointing to valid external ids in the UAT environment. This way, the data integrity and consistency across the integrated systems can be maintained. Letting UAT point to production integrations and rolling back each transaction after it finishes is not a good practice, as it can cause data loss or corruption in production. Deleting all the data and using an automated testing tool to create new data across all the systems in UAT is not feasible, as it can take a lot of time and resources. Masking the external id so nobody can see the production value is not a solution, as it does not address the underlying problem of invalid references.


NEW QUESTION # 117
Universal Containers is building a new complex integration to a legacy system. the legacy system is also going through a major upgrade. Senior leadership has committed to the board that the combined programs will be completed on time. What is the risk with this plan?

  • A. The project team has decided to use the Waterfall methodology
  • B. Multiple work -streams with dependencies could impact the go-live
  • C. The legacy system team is using an Agile methodology
  • D. The deadline is scheduled during a Salesforce release

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
D is the correct answer, as the risk with this plan is that multiple work-streams with dependencies could impact the go-live. If the legacy system upgrade and the new integration are not aligned and coordinated, there could be delays, errors, or failures in the project delivery. A is incorrect, as the deadline being scheduled during a Salesforce release is not a risk, but an opportunity to leverage the new features and enhancements that Salesforce provides. B is incorrect, as the project team using the Waterfall methodology is not a risk, but a choice that depends on the project scope, complexity, and requirements. C is incorrect, as the legacy system team using an Agile methodology is not a risk, but a choice that depends on the project scope, complexity, and requirements. You can learn more about the risk management in the Project Management Strategies for Salesforce Implementations module on Trailhead.


NEW QUESTION # 118
Universal Containers is having trouble aligning releases between major, minor, and Salesforce seasonal releases.
What should an architect recommend?

  • A. Gate all release decisions at the center of excellence.
  • B. Share the test plans between the teams on each release type.
  • C. Create a spreadsheet of metadata changes and reconcile the overlaps.
  • D. Create a release calendar, train and align all the teams.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Creating a release calendar, training and aligning all the teams is the best way to avoid conflicts and ensure smooth releases between major, minor, and Salesforce seasonal releases. A release calendar can help the teams plan ahead, coordinate their efforts, and avoid overlapping or conflicting changes. Training and aligning the teams can help them understand the release processes, the best practices, and the expectations for each release type. Gating all release decisions at the center of excellence, sharing the test plans, or creating a spreadsheet of metadata changes are not sufficient or scalable solutions for this problem.


NEW QUESTION # 119
Universal Containers CUC) is considering implementing a minor change policy for a series of low-risk user stories that are commonly received by the UC admins. The policy would allow admins to make these changes directly in production. UC does not have continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) in place.
Which three best practices should the architect suggest UC follow for their new change policy? Choose 3 answers

  • A. Minor changes should be thoroughly documented and follow some type of standard cadence.
  • B. Minor changes do not need to be documented and can be made at any time.
  • C. Downstream environments will not be automatically updated when production changes.
  • D. All changes should still be tested.
  • E. CI/CD is required in to successfully manage minor changes.

Answer: B,C,D


NEW QUESTION # 120
Universal Containers is having trouble aligning releases between major, minor, and Salesforce seasonal releases.
What should an architect recommend?

  • A. Gate all release decisions at the center of excellence.
  • B. Share the test plans between the teams on each release type.
  • C. Create a spreadsheet of metadata changes and reconcile the overlaps.
  • D. Create a release calendar, train and align all the teams.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Creating a release calendar, training and aligning all the teams is the best way to avoid conflicts and ensure smooth releases between major, minor, and Salesforce seasonal releases. A release calendar can help the teams plan ahead, coordinate their efforts, and avoid overlapping or conflicting changes. Training and aligning the teams can help them understand the release processes, the best practices, and the expectations for each release type. Gating all release decisions at the center of excellence, sharing the test plans, or creating a spreadsheet of metadata changes are not sufficient or scalable solutions for this problem.


NEW QUESTION # 121
Which are the two key benefits of fully integrating an agile issue tracker with software testing and continuous integration tools? Choose 2 answers?

  • A. Developers can see automated test statuses that commit on a specific user story.
  • B. Developers can use the committed code's build status directly on the user story record.
  • C. Developers can collaborate and communicate effectively on specific user stories.
  • D. Developers can observe their team velocity on the burn chart report in the agile tool.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
Explanation
Integrating an agile issue tracker with software testing and continuous integration tools can provide the following benefits:
Developers can see automated test statuses that commit on a specific user story, which can help them identify and fix any errors or failures quickly.
Developers can use the committed code's build status directly on the user story record, which can help them track the progress and quality of their work.


NEW QUESTION # 122
Universal Containers business users often observe that newly released features are resulting in other previously existing and stable functionality being broken. Which approach should an Architect recommend to prevent regression?

  • A. Utilize unit and functional test automation as part of a continuous integration strategy
  • B. Utilize Salesforce Apex Hammer to automatically test all functionality
  • C. Utilize the developer console to run test suites for the affected functionality
  • D. Freeze development of new features and re -architect the system to remove the bugs

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
This is the correct answer because utilizing unit and functional test automation as part of a continuous integration strategy can prevent regression by ensuring that the code and configuration are always tested and validated before deployment. Utilizing the developer console to run test suites is not sufficient and may not cover all the functionality. Utilizing Salesforce Apex Hammer is not a feasible option as it is an internal tool that Salesforce uses to test customer orgs before major releases. Freezing development of new features and re-architecting the system is not a realistic or cost-effective approach to prevent regression.


NEW QUESTION # 123
......


To become a Salesforce Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect, candidates must have a strong understanding of the Salesforce platform and its architecture, as well as hands-on experience in designing and deploying complex solutions. They should also have experience working with development teams, project managers, and other stakeholders to ensure successful delivery of projects.

 

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