New ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Dumps & Questions Updated on 2026
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NEW QUESTION # 94
A system computes prices for bus tickets. The price depends on
- the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)
- the travelling type (as single or in a group)
- the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)
- the kind of transport (ordinary, express)
Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?
- A. Equivalence partitioning
- B. State transition testing
- C. Use case testing
- D. Statement coverage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component. Equivalence partitioning can be used to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. Equivalence partitioning is suitable for testing the price computation, as it can identify different partitions based on the passenger type, the travelling type, the distance and the kind of transport. Equivalence partitioning is not statement coverage, which is a technique that measures how many executable statements in a source code are executed by a test suite. Statement coverage is not appropriate for testing the price computation, as it does not consider the input data or output results. Equivalence partitioning is not state transition testing, which is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions. State transition testing is not relevant for testing the price computation, as it does not involve any states or transitions. Equivalence partitioning is not use case testing, which is a technique that tests how users interact with a system to achieve a specific goal. Use case testing is not applicable for testing the price computation, as it does not focus on a single function or component. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 37-38.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the third test quadrant (Q3)?
- A. This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.
- B. This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.
- C. This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.
- D. This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
The Agile Testing Quadrants framework categorizes tests based on their purpose and audience:
* Quadrant 1 (Q1): Technology-facing tests (unit and component tests).
* Quadrant 2 (Q2): Business-facing tests supporting development (e.g., BDD tests).
* Quadrant 3 (Q3): Business-facing tests that critique the system (B).
* Includes usability testing, exploratory testing, and UAT to ensure software meets user expectations.
* Quadrant 4 (Q4): Technology-facing tests that critique the system (e.g., performance, security testing).
Option B correctly defines Q3 since it focuses on evaluating the user experience, exploring the system, and validating business expectations.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 5.1.7 - Agile Testing Quadrants
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?
- A. The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects
- B. For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards
- C. The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing
- D. The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved
Answer: A
Explanation:
Testing is necessary for various reasons, such as:
To detect defects and failures that may affect the quality, performance, reliability or security of a software product or system To verify that a software product or system meets its specified requirements, expectations and standards To validate that a software product or system fulfills its intended purpose and satisfies its stakeholders' needs To provide information and feedback about the status and risks of a software product or system To comply with regulations or contractual obligations that mandate testing for certain types of software products or systems The following statements describe some reasons why testing is necessary:
A) The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a contractual obligation or a quality standard that requires testing to measure and achieve a certain level of code coverage.
C) For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a regulation or a compliance requirement that mandates testing for certain types of software products or systems that have high safety or security risks.
D) The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a risk-based approach that considers testing as an investment to reduce the probability and impact of potential failures or defects. The following statement does not describe a reason why testing is necessary:
B) The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects. This is not a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a business decision or a resource allocation that does not justify the need or purpose of testing. Test automation tools are not always suitable or beneficial for all projects, and testing can be performed with or without test automation tools. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 5-6.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY NOT part of a test progress report?
- A. A detailed assessment of product quality
- B. Test metrics to show the current status of the test process
- C. Obstacles and their workarounds
- D. New or changed risks
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
A test progress report provides an overview of testing activities, metrics, and identified risks. It focuses on tracking testing progress rather than evaluating overall product quality (B), which is typically included in a test summary report after testing is completed.
* (A) is correct because obstacles (challenges) are reported to ensure test execution stays on track.
* (C) is correct as test metrics help stakeholders track execution progress.
* (D) is correct because new or changed risks impact test focus and priorities.
A test progress report tracks execution and informs stakeholders about ongoing testing activities.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 5.3 - Test Monitoring and Control
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which ONE of the following statements is correct?
- A. Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models
- B. Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts
- C. There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable library.
- D. Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following BEST explains a drawback of independent testing?
- A. An independent test team may be isolated from the rest of the development and project team
- B. Due to their differing backgrounds and perspectives, an independent test team may discover defects which the developers did not uncover
- C. An independent test team may possess specializations in specific test types such as usability or security which detract from the overall effectiveness of the test team
- D. Having the business organization participate as an independent test team can hurt the overall testing effort since business participants are often not trained nor experienced in testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Independent testing offers several advantages, such as unbiased testing and detection of different defects.
However, a drawback is that an independent test team may be isolated from the development team and project team. This can lead to communication gaps, reduced collaboration, and a lack of understanding of the project context.
According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) syllabus v4.0, an independent test team may not have the same level of understanding of the system as the development team, leading to potential issues in communication and integration (ISTQB not-for-profit association).
References:
* Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
* ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.
- B. Testing the software under test (SUT) based on design is black-box testing whereas testing the input- output behaviour is experience based testing.
- C. Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing whereas without pre-written test cases is using black-box testing techniques.
- D. Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without prewritten test cases is experience based testing.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?
- A. Test analysis
- B. Test execution
- C. Test implementation
- D. Test design
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Test analysis involves identifying the features to be tested and deriving test conditions. It is the phase where testers analyze the test basis (e.g., requirements, specifications) to identify testable aspects of the system. Test design (A) focuses on creating test cases, test implementation (C) involves preparing the test environment, and test execution (D) runs the tests.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.1 - Test Analysis
NEW QUESTION # 102
In which of the following cases you wouldNOTexecute maintenance testing?
- A. Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase
- B. Migration of the system data to a replacement system
- C. Retirement of the software or system
- D. Modifications to a released software or system
Answer: A
Explanation:
Maintenance testing is testing performed on a software product after delivery to correct defects or improve performance or other attributes. Maintenance testing can be triggered by various situations, such as modifications to a released software or system, migration of the system data to a replacement system, or retirement of the software or system. Maintenance testing is not executed when there is an update to the maintainability requirements during the development phase, as this is not a maintenance situation but rather a change request that should be handled by the development process. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 18-19.
NEW QUESTION # 103
What is 'Component Testing'?
- A. A test level
- B. Functional testing
- C. Integration Testing
- D. Experience-based testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Component testing is a test level. A test level is a group of test activities that are organized and managed together based on some common characteristics or objectives. A test level can bedefined based on various factors, such as the scope and target of testing, the phase and model of development, the stakeholders and roles involved in testing, etc. Component testing (also known as unit testing or module testing) is a test level that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of individual software components (such as modules, classes, functions, methods, etc.). Component testing can be performed by developers or testers using various techniques and tools depending on the type and complexity of the components. The other options are not test levels. Integration testing is another test level that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of groups of software components that interact with each other or with external systems. Functional testing is a type of black-box dynamic testing that verifies that the system under test performs its intended functions according to its requirements or specifications. Experience-based testing is a category of test design techniques that rely on the tester's knowledge and intuition to derive and select test cases based on their experience with similar systems, technologies, domains, risks, etc. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 19.
NEW QUESTION # 104
A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.
Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?
- A. Absence-of-errors fallacy
- B. Defect clustering
- C. Early testing
- D. Pesticide Paradox
Answer: B
Explanation:
Defect clustering is a testing principle that states that a small number of modules contain most of the defects detected during pre-release testing, or are responsible for most of the operational failures. Defect clustering can be explained by Pareto's principle (also known as the 80-20 rule), which states that approximately 80% of the problems are found in 20% of the modules. Defect clustering suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, as it implies that more effort should be allocated to test the modules that have shown high defect density or criticality. Pesticide paradox is another testing principle that states that if the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually they will no longer find any new defects. Pesticide paradox suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but not based on defect clustering, but rather on test diversity and coverage. Early testing is a testing principle that states that testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development life cycle and should be focused on defined objectives. Early testing does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a proactive approach to prevent defects from occurring or propagating. Absence-of-errors fallacy is a testing principle that states that finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the users' needs and expectations. Absence-of-errors fallacy does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a focus on quality attributes and user requirements. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 9-10.
NEW QUESTION # 105
In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks.
Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered?
I.Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks.
ii.Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset.
iii.Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.
iv.Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.
- A. ii and iv
- B. ii and iii
- C. i and iii
- D. i and ii
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Agile teams, close collaboration among testers and other team members can lead to organizational risks such as: ii. Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset. iv. Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.
These risks highlight the potential issues of diminished testing perspective and team turnover when testers integrate closely with developers and other roles.
NEW QUESTION # 106
You are working on creating test cases for a user story -
As a customer, I want to be able to book an ISTQB exam for a particular date, so that I can find choose my time slot and pay the correct amount, including discounts, if any.
The acceptance criteria for this :
1. The dates shown should be from the current date to 2 years in future
2. Initially there should be 10 timeslots available for each day, 1 hour each, starting at 8 AM GMT
3. Maximum 5 persons should be able to select a time slot after which that time slot should become unavailable
4. First timeslot should have a 10% discount
Which of the following is the BEST example of a test case for this user story?
- A. Logon to the site. Book an exam for the current date. Expected result: timeslots should be shown.
Change the time to any other date prior to the selected date. Expected result: New slot should become visible. - B. Logon to the site. Expected result: Default 8 AM (GMT) timeslot should be selected Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: New slot should be booked
- C. Logon to the site and book an exam for the 8 AM (GMT) timeslot Expected result: You should get 10% discounted price. Change the time to any other timeslot. Expected result: Discount should be removed
- D. Logon to the site. Book 5 exams for the current date. Expected result: Exams should be booked. Book
6th timeslot for the same date. Expected result: The exam should be booked but no discount should be given.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the involvement of testers in the software development lifecycle (SDLC)?
- A. Testers should be involved from the beginning of the SDLC to increase understanding of design decisions and detect defects early.
- B. Testers' involvement is essential; developers find it difficult to be objective.
- C. Testers should only be involved during the testing phase.
- D. Testers should contribute to all activities in the SDLC and participate in design discussions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Involving testers only during the testing phase is incorrect as per the ISTQB CTFL syllabus. Effective involvement of testers is crucial throughout the entire software development lifecycle (SDLC). This includes early stages such as requirement analysis and design, which allows testers to understand the design decisions and detect defects early. Early involvement helps in better understanding the project and ensures that quality is built into the product from the beginning. Furthermore, the ISTQB syllabus emphasizes the importance of testers contributing to all activities in the SDLC, including design discussions, to enhance defect detection and prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 108
As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some character. (A, X and Z) sent via a serial port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the "bit parity" parameter.
Which of the following items of an incident report would you be UNABLE to write down based on this information?
- A. Expected result
- B. Test case identifier
- C. Actual result
- D. Test setup details
Answer: B
Explanation:
An incident report is a document that records the details of an incident. An incident report typically contains the following items:
* Identifier: A unique identifier for the incident report
* Summary: A concise summary of the incident
* Description: A detailed description of the incident, including the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, and any relevant screenshots or logs
* Severity: The degree of impact that the incident has on the system
* Priority: The level of urgency for resolving the incident
* Status: The current state of the incident, such as new, open, resolved, closed, etc.
* Resolution: The action taken to resolve the incident, such as fix, workaround, reject, etc. Based on the information given in the question, the tester would be able to write down all of these items except for the test case identifier. A test case identifier is a unique identifier for a test case that is used to link it to other test artifacts, such as test plans, test scripts, test results or incident reports. However, since the tester is performing exploratory testing, there is no predefined test case that can be associated with the incident. Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Exploratory testing does not use formal test cases
* or scripts, but rather uses test charters or missions that guide the tester's actions and objectives. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page
32-33; Chapter 5, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 109
The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: "Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?
- A. Functional Testing
- B. Defect analysis
- C. Requirements elicitation
- D. Performance Testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quality Assurance (QA) activities are focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled through planned and systematic processes. These activities are preventive in nature, aimed at ensuring quality is built into the product from the beginning.
Requirements elicitation (A) is part of the requirements engineering process and is concerned with gathering the needs and conditions to meet for a new or altered product.
Defect analysis (B) can be part of QA activities as it involves analyzing defects to prevent them in future development cycles.
Functional Testing (C) and Performance Testing (D) are types of dynamic testing, which are actually Quality Control activities rather than Quality Assurance. They are concerned with the identification of defects in the product, not with the processes to prevent defects.
Since the question asks for an activity that is NOT part of Quality Assurance, options A and B are incorrect because they can be part of QA activities. Between C and D, while both are dynamic testing activities, Functional Testing (C) is more directly related to verifying the functionality against specified requirements, which is more aligned with Quality Control. Therefore, C is the best answer.
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?
- A. The tester assesses the testability of the user stories
- B. The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks
- C. The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations
- D. The tester writes acceptance criteria
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 111
The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:
- A. are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"
- B. must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented
- C. can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"
- D. are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"
Answer: C
Explanation:
The acceptance criteria associated with a user story are the conditions that must be met for the user story to be considered done and to deliver the expected value to the user. They are often written in different formats, such as rule-oriented, scenario-oriented, or table-oriented, depending on the nature and complexity of the user story. They represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation, which is one of the so called "3 C' s" of user stories. The other two aspects are card and conversation. Card refers to the concise and informal description of the user story, usually following the template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can
[benefit]". Conversation refers to the ongoing dialogue between the stakeholders and the team members to clarify and refine the user story and its acceptance criteria. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 3.2.2, page 35-36; ISTQB Glossary v4.
02, page 37.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?
- A. Source code
- B. Compiled code
- C. Test plans
- D. Formal models
Answer: C
Explanation:
Static analysis is the process of examining the work products of a software development or testing activity without executing them. Static analysis can be applied to various types of work products, such as requirements, design, code, test cases, etc. However, test plans are not suitable for static analysis, because they are high-level documents that describe the test objectives, scope, strategy, resources, schedule, and risks of a testing project. Test plans are not executable or formalized in a way that static analysis tools can analyze them. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.2.1, page 20; ISTQB Glossary v4.
02, page 45.
NEW QUESTION # 113
Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of
- A. Failure
- B. Defect
- C. It is not a defect
- D. Error
Answer: A
Explanation:
A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits. A failure is observable by the software users or other stakeholders. A failure is caused by one or more defects in the software. In this case, the software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of a failure, as it deviates from the stated requirement and affects the user experience. It is not a defect, which is a flaw in the software that causes the failure. It is not an error, which is a human action that produces an incorrect result. It is not a non-defect, as it clearly violates a specified requirement. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 4.
NEW QUESTION # 114
The following open incident report provided:
Date: 01.01.01
Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in "Attention" instead of "Ready'.
Severity: High
Life Cycle: Integration
Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report?
I. Identification or configuration of the application
II. The name of the developer
III. Recommendation of the developer
IV The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button
- A. I. II
- B. IV
- C. II, III
- D. I. IV
Answer: D
Explanation:
In an incident report, essential details provide context and facilitate the investigation and resolution of the incident. The missing elements in the given incident report are:
I: Identification or configuration of the application: This detail is crucial as it specifies which version or configuration of the application is affected, helping in reproducing the issue. IV. The actions and/or conditions that came before pressing the button: Understanding the sequence of actions leading to the issue is vital for replicating and diagnosing the problem.
The name of the developer (II) and the recommendation of the developer (III) are not typically included in an incident report as they do not contribute to identifying or resolving the incident. The focus is on the incident's details, reproduction steps, and the system's state rather than on personnel or proposed solutions at this stage.
Therefore, option B, which includes both I and IV, is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 115
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