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Fortinet NSE7_ADA-6.3 exam consists of 23 complex scenarios that simulate real-world security threats. Candidates are required to analyze each situation and identify the best solution using Fortinet’s advanced analytics tools. The test duration is six hours, and the passing score is 70%. Fortinet NSE 7 - Advanced Analytics 6.3 certification is valid for two years, after which candidates need to recertify to stay up to date with Fortinet’s latest security solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 20
How do customers connect to a shared multi-tenant instance on FortiSOAR?
- A. The MSSP must provide secure network connectivity between the FortiSOAR manager node and the customer devices.
- B. The MSSP must install a Secure Message Exchange node to connect to the customer's shared multi-tenant instance.
- C. The customer must install a tenant node to connect to the MSSP shared multi-tenant instance.
- D. The MSSP must install an agent node on the customer's network to connect to the customer's shared multi-tenant instance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
To connect to a shared multi-tenant instance on FortiSOAR, the MSSP must install an agent node on the customer's network. The agent node acts as a proxy between the customer's devices and the FortiSOAR manager node. The agent node also performs data collection, enrichment, and normalization for the customer's data sources. References: Fortinet NSE 7 - Advanced Analytics 6.3 Exam Description, page 11
NEW QUESTION # 21
Refer to the exhibit.
Is the Windows agent delivering event logs correctly?
- A. The agent is not sending logs because it did not receive a monitoring template.
- B. Because the agent is unmanaged. the logs are dropped silently by the supervisor.
- C. The logs are buffered by the agent and will be sent once the status changes to managed.
- D. The agent is registered and it is sending logs correctly.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The windows agent is not delivering event logs correctly because the agent is unmanaged, meaning it is not assigned to any organization or customer. The supervisor will drop the logs silently from unmanaged agents, as they are not associated with any valid license or CMDB.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which three processes are collector processes? (Choose three.)
- A. phReportM aster
- B. phMonitorAgent
- C. phAgentManaqer
- D. phRuleMaster
- E. phParser
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
Explanation
The collector processes are responsible for receiving, parsing, normalizing, correlating, and monitoring events from various sources. The collector processes are phParser, phRuleMaster, and phMonitorAgent.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator deploys a new collector for the first time, and notices that all the processes except the phMonitor are down.
How can the administrator bring the processes up?
- A. The collector was not deployed properly and must be redeployed.
- B. Rebooting the collector will bring up the processes.
- C. The administrator needs to run the command phtools --start all on the collector.
- D. The processes will come up after the collector is registered to the supervisor.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The collector processes are dependent on the registration with the supervisor. The phMonitor process is responsible for registering the collector to the supervisor and monitoring the health of other processes. After the registration is successful, the phMonitor will start the other processes on the collector.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Refer to the exhibit.
The rule evaluates multiple VPN logon failures within a ten-minute window. Consider the following VPN failure events received within a ten-minute window:
How many incidents are generated?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The rule evaluates multiple VPN logon failures within a ten-minute window. The rule will generate an incident if there are more than three VPN logon failures from the same source IP address within a ten-minute window.
Based on the VPN failure events received within a ten-minute window, there are two incidents generated:
* One incident for source IP address 10.10.10.10, which has four VPN logon failures at 09:01, 09:02,
09:03, and 09:04.
* One incident for source IP address 10.10.10.11, which has four VPN logon failures at 09:06, 09:07,
09:08, and 09:09.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator wants to remediate the incident from FortiSIEM shown in the exhibit.
What option is available to the administrator?
- A. Run the block MAC FortiOS.
- B. Run the block IP FortiOS 5.4
- C. Quarantine IP FortiClient
- D. Run the block domain Windows DNS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The incident from FortiSIEM shown in the exhibit is a brute force attack on a FortiGate device. The remediation option available to the administrator is to run the block IP FortiOS 5.4 action, which will block the source IP address of the attacker on the FortiGate device using a firewall policy.
NEW QUESTION # 26
What is the disadvantage of automatic remediation?
- A. Threat behaviors occurring during the night could take hours to respond to.
- B. It is equivalent to running an IPS in monitor-only mode - watches but does not block.
- C. It can make a disruptive change to a user, block access to an application, or disconnect critical systems from the network.
- D. External threats or attacks detected by FortiSIEM will need user interaction to take action on an already overworked SOC team.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The disadvantage of automatic remediation is that it can make a disruptive change to a user, block access to an application, or disconnect critical systems from the network. Automatic remediation can have unintended consequences if not carefully planned and tested. Therefore, it is recommended to use manual or semi-automatic remediation for sensitive or critical systems. References: Fortinet NSE 7 - Advanced Analytics
6.3 Exam Description, page 15
NEW QUESTION # 27
Refer to the exhibit.
If the Z-score for this rule is greater than or equal to three, what does this mean?
- A. The rate of firewall connection is above the historical average value.
- B. The rate of firewall connection is below historical average value.
- C. The rate of firewall connection is optimum.
- D. The rate of firewall connection is above the current average value.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
If the Z-score for this rule is greater than or equal to three, it means that the rate of firewall connection is above the historical average value. The Z-score is a measure of how many standard deviations a value is away from the mean of a distribution. A Z-score of three or more indicates that the value is significantly higher than the mean, which implies an anomaly or deviation from normal behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which three processes are collector processes? (Choose three.)
- A. phReportM aster
- B. phMonitorAgent
- C. phAgentManaqer
- D. phRuleMaster
- E. phParser
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
Explanation
The collector processes are responsible for receiving, parsing, normalizing, correlating, and monitoring events from various sources. The collector processes are phParser, phRuleMaster, and phMonitorAgent.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Refer to the exhibit.
The service provider deployed FortiSIEM without a collector and added three customers on the supervisor.
What mistake did the administrator make?
- A. Customer A and customer B have overlapping IP addresses.
- B. Collectors must be deployed on all customer premises before they are added to organizations on the supervisor.
- C. At least one collector must be deployed to collect logs from service provider infrastructure devices.
- D. The number of workers on the FortiSIEM cluster must match the number of customers added.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The mistake that the administrator made is that customer A and customer B have overlapping IP addresses.
This will cause confusion and errors in event collection and correlation, as well as CMDB discovery and classification. To avoid this problem, each customer should have a unique IP address range or use NAT to translate their IP addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 30
From where does the rule engine load the baseline data values?
- A. The daily database
- B. The memory
- C. The profile database
- D. The profile report
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The rule engine loads the baseline data values from the profile database. The profile database contains historical data that is used for baselining calculations, such as minimum, maximum, average, standard deviation, and percentile values for various metrics.
NEW QUESTION # 31
On which disk are the SQLite databases that are used for the baselining stored?
- A. Disk2
- B. Disk1
- C. Disk4
- D. Disk3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The SQLite databases that are used for the baselining are stored on Disk3 of the FortiSIEM server. Disk3 is also used for storing raw event data and CMDB data.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Refer to the exhibit.
The exhibit shows the output of an SQL command that an administrator ran to view the natural_id value, after logging into the Postgres database.
What does the natural_id value identify?
- A. The collector
- B. The worker
- C. The supervisor
- D. An agent
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The natural_id value identifies the collector in the FortiSIEM system. The natural_id is a unique identifier that is assigned to each collector during the registration process with the supervisor. The natural_id is used to associate events and performance data with the collector that collected them.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following are two Tactics in the MITRE ATT&CK framework? (Choose two.)
- A. Discovery
- B. Phishing
- C. BITS Jobs
- D. Root kit
- E. Reconnaissance
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Explanation
Reconnaissance and Discovery are two Tactics in the MITRE ATT&CK framework. Tactics are the high-level objectives of an adversary, such as initial access, persistence, lateral movement, etc. Reconnaissance is the tactic of gathering information about a target before launching an attack. Discovery is the tactic of exploring a compromised system or network to find information or assets of interest. References: Fortinet NSE 7 - Advanced Analytics 6.3 Exam Description, page 21
NEW QUESTION # 34
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