
A Fully Updated 2025 AgilePM-Foundation Exam Dumps - PDF Questions and Testing Engine
Easy Success APMG-International AgilePM-Foundation Exam in First Try
The Agile Project Management Foundation certification exam format consists of a 60-minute closed-book exam, consisting of 50 multiple-choice questions. The minimum pass score required is 50%. AgilePM-Foundation exam is constructed to assess the candidate's understanding of the Agile project management approach, the AgilePM framework, Agile planning, Agile estimating and control, Agile perspectives on requirements, and Agile perspectives on change. Successful certification holders receive a certification from APMG International.
NEW QUESTION # 19
According to Tuckman, in what stage of the team development model are team members likely to want to test and challenge assumptions?
- A. Forming.
- B. Storming.
- C. Adjourning.
- D. Performing.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Storming Stage: During this stage, team members test and challenge assumptions, roles, and processes.
This is essential for resolving conflicts and building stronger foundations for collaboration.
* Other Stages:
* Forming: Initial stage with minimal conflict.
* Performing: High-functioning stage with clear roles.
* Adjourning: Focuses on reflection and closure.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Team Development Models: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.
NEW QUESTION # 20
During what phase should the strategy for Iterative Development be considered?
- A. Pre-Project
- B. Evolutionary Development
- C. Feasibility
- D. Foundations
Answer: D
Explanation:
The strategy for Iterative Development should be considered during the Foundations phase. This phase establishes a firm foundation for the project, ensuring that only the right projects are started and that they are set up correctly, considering aspects such as feasibility and business case1. It's crucial to have a clear strategy for Iterative Development at this stage to guide the subsequent phases of the project effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 21
What role normally facilitates the Daily Stand.up?
- A. Business Advisor
- B. Technical Advisor
- C. Team Leader
- D. Project manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
The role that normally facilitates the Daily Stand-up in AgilePM is the Team Leader5. The Team Leader ensures that the meeting is focused on progress toward the iteration goal and facilitates effective decision-making during the stand-up.
NEW QUESTION # 22
When is a Timebox Plan updated?
- A. Each time a Timebox is completed
- B. At the Daily Start-ups
- C. As needed by the Project Manager
- D. At Timebox Kick-ups
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which purpose relates to the Consolidation in a structured Timebox?
- A. To formality accept the structured Timebox deliverables.
- B. To tie up any loose ends related to Evolutionary Development
- C. To address the requirements and test the structure Timebox product.
- D. To confirm the detail of all the requirements to be delivered by the structured Timebox.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which statement about DSDM roles is true?
- A. One DSDM roles does NOT necessarily mean one person
- B. DSDM roles should NOT be split between two people
- C. All DSDM roles should be shared
- D. In DSDM, one person must hold several roles
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which technique allows for testing the achievailability of objectives?
- A. Modeling
- B. Facilitated Workshop
- C. MoSCoW
- D. Timeboxing
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 26
How should DSDM team measure progress?
- A. Based on the completion of activities rather than the delivery of products
- B. Based on what has been delivered at the end of a Timebox.
- C. Through an analysis of the Instrumental Success Factors.
- D. Through a project dashboard
Answer: B
Explanation:
A DSDM team should measure progress: B. Based on what has been delivered at the end of a Timebox5.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following statements about a 'Force Field Analysis' are true?
* It can reveal both barriers to overcome and possible sources of resistance.
* It should be created independently by the change manager.
- A. Only 1 is true.
- B. Neither 1 nor 2 is true.
- C. Only 2 is true.
- D. Both 1 and 2 are true.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Statement 1: Correct. Force Field Analysis identifies driving and restraining forces for change, helping to address barriers and resistance.
* Statement 2: Incorrect. The analysis should be a collaborative effort involving stakeholders, not solely created by the change manager.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Force Field Analysis as a Tool: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 7, Section 7.2.
NEW QUESTION # 28
What kind of power is conveyed by a manager who is admired and respected by their subordinates and seen as a role model?
- A. Legitimate.
- B. Referent.
- C. Reward.
- D. Coercive.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Referent Power: This form of power is derived from the personal qualities of the leader, such as charisma, integrity, or ability to inspire, making them a role model for others. AgilePM values leaders who lead by influence rather than authority.
* Other Options:
* Legitimate: Based on a formal position or title.
* Reward: Tied to the ability to offer incentives.
* Coercive: Involves using fear or threats, which is not ideal in Agile environments.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Leadership Styles: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 4, Section 4.5.
NEW QUESTION # 29
What role is responsible for interpreting the needs of the Business Sponsor and communicating these to the team?
- A. Business Analyst
- B. Team Leader
- C. Business Visionary
- D. Technical Coordinator
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 30
When should the quality of the evolving solution first be tesed?
- A. As part of the iterative Development process
- B. At the end of a project.
- C. At the end of a Timebox
- D. At the end of each increment
Answer: A
Explanation:
The quality of the evolving solution should be tested as part of the iterative development process4. This approach allows for continuous integration and testing of the solution, ensuring that quality is built into the product from the beginning and maintained throughout the development cycle.
NEW QUESTION # 31
In which step of the Continuous Change Management Cycle should change actions be broken into smaller tasks?
- A. Ideas.
- B. Action.
- C. Discovery.
- D. Prioritization.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Action Phase: Breaking change actions into smaller, manageable tasks happens during the Action step, where detailed plans are implemented. This ensures smoother execution and tracking of progress.
* Other Options:
* Discovery: Focuses on understanding the current situation.
* Ideas: Involves generating potential solutions.
* Prioritization: Helps decide which tasks or changes to focus on.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Continuous Change Management Cycle: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.6.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following is NOT an interest into which each DSDM role is grouped?
- A. Management
- B. Maintenance
- C. Solution/Technical
- D. Business
Answer: B
Explanation:
Maintenance is not one of the interest groups into which each DSDM role is grouped1. The recognized interest groups are Business, Solution/Technical, and Management1. These groups represent the different areas of focus within a DSDM project.
In DSDM, each role is grouped into interests such as Business, Solution/Technical, and Management.
Maintenance is not one of the interests into which DSDM roles are grouped. The primary focus of DSDM roles is to ensure that the project is delivered successfully by balancing business needs, technical feasibility, and effective management practices.
References:
* DSDM Agile Project Framework Handbook
* "Agile Project Management: Best Practices and Methodologies" by Eric Brechner
NEW QUESTION # 33
In the Process for Leading Change (Kotter), which of the 8 processes (or accelerators) aims to reduce the impact of doubters by demonstrating early achievements against the vision?
- A. Creating a sense of urgency around a single big opportunity.
- B. Building and maintaining a guiding coalition.
- C. Accelerating movement towards the vision.
- D. Celebrating visible, significant short-term wins.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Celebrating Short-Term Wins: Demonstrating early achievements builds confidence and reduces resistance by showing tangible progress. This is a key step in Kotter's model for leading change.
* Other Options:
* A: Building a coalition involves leadership but not reducing doubt.
* B: Creating urgency addresses the need for change, not achievements.
* C: Accelerating movement focuses on overall momentum.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Kotter's Change Model: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.2.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which skill is MOST relevant to helping people through the change curve?
- A. Negotiation.
- B. Decision-making.
- C. Active listening.
- D. Time management.
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Active Listening: The change curve requires empathetic and effective communication to understand concerns, address resistance, and guide individuals through emotional responses to change. Active listening is a vital skill in this process.
* Other Options:
* Time management: Important but not specific to the emotional aspects of change.
* Negotiation: Relevant for resolving conflicts but secondary to listening during change.
* Decision-making: Necessary for leadership but not for guiding individuals emotionally.
Key AgilePM Concepts Referenced:
* Engagement and Support: AgilePM Handbook, Chapter 6, Section 6.4.
NEW QUESTION # 35
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