2025 220-1101 Question Bank: Free PDF Download Recently Updated Questions
220-1101 Certification Exam Dumps with 870 Practice Test Questions
Candidates who pass the CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 will have demonstrated their ability to install, configure, and maintain hardware and software, troubleshoot common issues, and understand basic networking concepts. They will also have a solid foundation in cybersecurity and be able to identify and prevent security threats.
NEW QUESTION # 342
An IT technician is working on a help desk ticket concerning a user's inability to create a virtual machine. The technician has already checked the RAM and HDD space in the user's machine.
Which of the following settings should the technician check next to help troubleshoot the issue?
- A. MSConfig
- B. BIOS
- C. Secure Boot
- D. BitLocker
Answer: B
Explanation:
One of the possible settings that could prevent a user from creating a virtual machine is BIOS (Basic Input/Output System). BIOS is a firmware that controls how hardware components interact with each other and with software applications. Some BIOS settings may need to be changed or enabled to allow virtualization, such as VT-x (Intel Virtualization Technology) or AMD-V (AMD Virtualization).
NEW QUESTION # 343
Given the following output from a cable tester:
= Open
=12345678=
=12 45 78=
Which of the following tools should the technician use to resolve this issue? (Select two).
- A. Toner probe
- B. Wi-Fi analyzer
- C. Loopback plug
- D. Network tap
- E. Punchdown tool
- F. Crimper
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
The output from the cable tester indicates that there is an open fault in the cable, which means that one or more of the wires in the cable are not connected properly or are broken. The open fault affects the wires 3, 4, and 6, which are used for transmitting and receiving data in Ethernet networks. The open fault can cause network connectivity issues, such as no link, slow speed, or packet loss12.
To resolve this issue, the technician should use a crimper and a punchdown tool, which are tools that are used to attach connectors to cables or wires to patch panels. A crimper is a tool that squeezes or crimps a connector, such as an RJ-45, to the end of a cable, ensuring that the wires are securely inserted into the pins of the connector. A punchdown tool is a tool that pushes or punches a wire into a slot on a patch panel, creating a connection between the wire and the panel. Both tools can be used to fix or replace the faulty wires or connectors that cause the open fault12.
The other options are not as effective or relevant as a crimper and a punchdown tool. A loopback plug is a tool that is used to test the functionality of a network port or device, by sending and receiving signals from the same port or device. A loopback plug can help diagnose network problems, such as faulty ports or devices, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12. A network tap is a tool that is used to monitor or capture network traffic, by creating a copy of the data that passes through a network link. A network tap can help analyze network performance, security, or troubleshooting, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12. A toner probe is a tool that is used to trace or identify a cable or wire, by sending and detecting an audible tone along the cable or wire. A toner probe can help locate or label network cables or wires, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12. A Wi-Fi analyzer is a tool that is used to scan or measure wireless networks, by displaying information such as signal strength, channel, encryption, etc. A Wi-Fi analyzer can help optimize or troubleshoot wireless networks, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12.
References:
Network Tools - CompTIA A+ 220-1101 - Professor Messer IT ...
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Networking, Section 5.5: Network Tools, Page 249 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 5: Networking, Section 5.5:
Network Tools, Page 213
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Pearson uCertify Course and Labs and Textbook Bundle, Chapter 5: Networking, Section 5.5: Network Tools, Page 250
NEW QUESTION # 344
Which of the following cloud computing concepts allows a provider to bill a client for the amount of resources the client uses?
- A. Private cloud
- B. Rapid elasticity
- C. Measured service
- D. Hybrid cloud
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 345
A user requested a new printer with the requirement that all documents be printed in duplicate.
Which of the following will produce the MOST cost-effective duplicate printouts with the least amount of effort?
- A. Impact printer
- B. Inkjet printer
- C. Thermal printer
- D. Laser printer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Impact printers use a matrix of pins to strike an ink ribbon to transfer ink to the paper. The most common type is the dot-matrix printers. A unique feature of impact printers, as compared to other printers, is that they can print multiple copies simultaneously using carbonless or no carbon required (NCR) paper.
NEW QUESTION # 346
A customer built a computer for gaming, sourcing individual components and then assembling the system. The OS starts up, but within a few minutes the machine locks up. The customer brought the computer to a technician to diagnose the issue.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
correct answer is "Overclocking" and "Reduce CPU Clock speed" CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz.
Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer so the user probably took it too far.
http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting-tips-overclocking-pc/
NEW QUESTION # 347
Which of the following best describes the type of cloud a healthcare company should use for a patient record portal?
- A. public
- B. Hybrid
- C. Community
- D. Private
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A patient record portal is a web-based application that allows patients to access their health information, such as medical history, test results, prescriptions, and appointments. A patient record portal needs to be secure, reliable, and compliant with the health data regulations of the country or region where it operates1.
The type of cloud that best describes the type of cloud a healthcare company should use for a patient record portal is D. Private. A private cloud is a cloud computing model that is dedicated to a single organization and provides exclusive access and control over its resources and data2. A private cloud can offer the following benefits for a patient record portal:
Enhanced security and privacy: A private cloud can protect the sensitive health data from unauthorized access or breaches by using encryption, firewalls, authentication, and other security measures. A private cloud can also comply with the health data regulations, such as HIPAA in the US or GDPR in the EU, by ensuring that the data is stored and processed within the jurisdiction of the organization3.
Improved performance and reliability: A private cloud can optimize the speed and availability of the patient record portal by using dedicated servers, network bandwidth, and storage capacity. A private cloud can also ensure that the patient record portal can handle high demand and traffic without compromising its quality or functionality3.
Greater customization and flexibility: A private cloud can tailor the patient record portal to the specific needs and preferences of the organization and its patients by using customized applications, interfaces, and features. A private cloud can also scale up or down the resources and services of the patient record portal as needed without affecting its performance or cost3.
NEW QUESTION # 348
Which of the following allows all VMs in a virtual environment to have RAM allocated for use?
- A. Containerization
- B. Measured service
- C. Synchronization
- D. Resource pooling
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 349
A help desk technician thinks a desktop PC has failed due to a defective power supply. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?
- A. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.
- B. Inquire about environmental or infrastructure changes.
- C. Conduct external or internal research based on symptoms.
- D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Once the technician has determined that the power supply is likely to be defective, they should establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. This may include replacing the power supply or further testing to confirm that it is indeed defective. After establishing a plan of action, the technician should implement the solution and verify that it has resolved the issue.
NEW QUESTION # 350
A desktop support technician is building a new desktop that features the fastest internal storage.
Which of the following BEST suits this request?
- A. M.2 PCIe NVMe SSD
- B. SATASSD
- C. SATA HDD
- D. PCIe SATA HDD
Answer: A
Explanation:
M2PCIeNVMeSSD. M.2 PCIe NVMe SSDs are the fastest internal storage devices available for desktops. They are faster than SATA SSDs and PCIe SATA HDDs.
NEW QUESTION # 351
Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer. Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue?
- A. Perform the drum-cleaning procedure.
- B. Replace the printer paper with a new ream.
- C. Clear the print spooler on each computer.
- D. Reinstall the printer driver on each computer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Vertical or horizontal lines - Marks that appear in the same place (referred to as repetitive defects) are often due to dirty feed rollers (note that there are rollers in the toner cartridge and fuser unit too) or a damaged or dirty photosensitive drum.
NEW QUESTION # 352
A user reports a cell phone is getting hot. Which of the following are MOST likely to be possible causes? (Select THREE).
- A. Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot
- B. Privileged control
- C. A failing battery
- D. Less than 15% free storage space on the phone
- E. Recurring prompts to install OS updates
- F. Too many open applications
- G. A cracked screen
- H. Granting too many application camera permissions
Answer: A,C,F
NEW QUESTION # 353
A technician is setting up network printers in a new office building. The company wants all of the printers to be configured the same way for consistency. Some of the printers do not have an RJ45 port to connect to the network. Which of the following does the technician need to enable so all of the printers can be connected to the network?
- A. Wireless
- B. USB
- C. Authentication
- D. PostScript
Answer: A
Explanation:
To connect printers without an RJ45 port to the network, the technician needs to enable wireless connectivity.
By configuring the printers to connect to the network wirelessly, the company can achieve the desired consistency in printer configuration across the office. This approach allows printers without built-in wired network capabilities to be part of the network, facilitating shared access and remote printing functionalities.
References:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam Objectives, Section 2.3 Networking, specifically the information on configuring and troubleshooting wireless connectivity for devices, which includes enabling and securing wireless connections on network printers.
* General understanding of network printer configuration options, including the use of wireless connectivity to integrate printers into a network environment, particularly when wired connections are not feasible.
NEW QUESTION # 354
A user is unable to stream audio from a smartphone to a house speaker.
Which of the following BEST explains the reason for this issues?
- A. Bluetooth is not configured properly
- B. The smartphone is using a proxy or VPN
- C. The data-saving feature is enabled on the smartphone
- D. The smartphone is not configured for MDM
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 355
Which of the following explains how using a cloud infrastructure can provide rapid elasticity?
- A. Customers can limit the use of a resource
- B. Shared resources can reduce overhead.
- C. High availability of services can be provided
- D. Systems can be provisioned according to demand.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Systems can be provisioned according to demand. This is the essence of rapid elasticity, which is one of the essential characteristics of cloud computing. Rapid elasticity means that cloud services can be scaled up or down quickly and automatically, depending on the changing needs of the customers. This provides flexibility, efficiency, and cost-effectiveness for both the customers and the providers. According to the CompTIA Core1 objectives, one of the benefits of cloud computing is rapid elasticity. A research paper on cloud elasticity also defines it as the ability to dynamically adjust the amount of resources allocated to a service in response to its workload variation.
NEW QUESTION # 356
To control costs a company provides a limited number or users with company phones One of these users opens a support ticket because the phone no longer allows internet Drowsing over a cellular connection The user acknowledges that the phone worked before the user's child streamed several movies using the device Which of the following describes why the phone cannot browse the Internet?
- A. The device's plan has been unpaid
- B. The device has a data cap and has reached that limit
- C. The company's group policy disabled the device
- D. The child accidentally connected to a neighbor's WLAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
It is common for companies to place a data cap on the devices they provide to their employees, to control costs. If a user has exceeded the data cap, the phone may no longer allow internet browsing over a cellular connection. This is usually because the cellular data usage has exceeded the allotted amount for the particular plan the device is on, and the service provider has temporarily suspended the data connection.
It is unlikely that the child accidentally connected to a neighbor's WLAN because this would not affect the cellular data connection. Similarly, it is unlikely that the company's group policy has disabled the device, as this would likely affect all devices under the same policy. If the device's plan has been unpaid, the service provider would likely temporarily suspend all services, not just the cellular data connection.
NEW QUESTION # 357
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CompTIA 220-1101 (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1) Certification Exam is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills required for entry-level IT professionals. 220-1101 exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of individuals in computer hardware, software, and networking. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification is a strong foundation for a career in IT, and it is recognized by employers worldwide.
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